Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 12:01
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
My husband asked me why do I keep on complaining about him cheating. Why don't I just leave?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What are some mind-blowing facts that sound unreal but are actually true?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Democrats be honest, how many of you were wishing that Musk rescue space flight blew up?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.